Title: Emt Nremt Exam Prep — LearnCoachAssist

Q: What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for in patient history?
A: Signs/symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent history, Last oral intake, Events leading up.

Q: What does the acronym OPQRST assess?
A: Onset, Provocation/palliation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time.

Q: What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
A: 12–20 breaths per minute.

Q: What is the normal respiratory rate for an infant?
A: 30–60 breaths per minute.

Q: What is the normal respiratory rate for a child (1–12 years)?
A: 15–30 breaths per minute.

Q: What is the normal adult heart rate range?
A: 60–100 beats per minute.

Q: What is the normal heart rate for a newborn?
A: 100–160 beats per minute.

Q: What is considered normal adult systolic blood pressure?
A: Less than 120 mmHg.

Q: What is the formula to estimate minimum acceptable systolic BP for a child >1 year?
A: 70 + (2 x age in years) mmHg.

Q: What is the first step of the scene size-up?
A: Ensure scene safety (BSI/PPE, scene hazards, number of patients, need for additional resources).

Q: What does the primary assessment identify first?
A: Life-threatening conditions requiring immediate intervention (airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure).

Q: What is the correct order of assessment in the primary survey?
A: X-massive hemorrhage (if applicable), Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure.

Q: What is the AVPU scale used for?
A: Assessing level of consciousness: Alert, responds to Verbal, responds to Pain, Unresponsive.

Q: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale range?
A: 3 (deep coma/death) to 15 (fully alert).

Q: What are the three categories scored in the Glasgow Coma Scale?
A: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response.

Q: What is the maximum eye-opening score on GCS?
A: 4 points (spontaneous eye opening).

Q: What is the maximum motor response score on GCS?
A: 6 points (obeys commands).

Q: What is the maximum verbal response score on GCS?
A: 5 points (oriented).

Q: What is a rapid trauma assessment used for?
A: A quick head-to-toe exam on patients with significant mechanism of injury to find life threats.

Q: What is a focused assessment used for?
A: Patients with an isolated injury or no significant mechanism of injury; focuses on the chief complaint.

Q: What is the recovery position used for?
A: Unresponsive patients with adequate breathing and no suspected spinal injury, to protect the airway from aspiration.

Q: What is the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver used for?
A: Opening the airway in a patient with no suspected spine injury.

Q: What is the jaw-thrust maneuver used for?
A: Opening the airway in a patient with suspected spinal injury.

Q: What are signs of adequate breathing?
A: Normal rate and rhythm, equal chest rise, adequate depth, normal skin color, no accessory muscle use.

Q: What are signs of inadequate breathing?
A: Rate too fast/slow, shallow depth, irregular rhythm, cyanosis, accessory muscle use, altered mental status.

Q: When should you insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
A: In an unresponsive patient with no gag reflex.

Q: How do you size an OPA?
A: Measure from the corner of the mouth to the earlobe (or angle of the jaw).

Q: When should you insert a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)?
A: In a responsive or unresponsive patient who can tolerate it but does not tolerate an OPA; caution with suspected skull fracture.

Q: How do you size an NPA?
A: Measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe.

Q: What is a contraindication for a nasopharyngeal airway?
A: Suspected basilar skull fracture or severe facial trauma.

Q: What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-rescuer adult CPR?
A: 30 compressions to 2 breaths.

Q: What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer infant/child CPR?
A: 15 compressions to 2 breaths.

Q: What is the compression rate for adult CPR?
A: 100–120 compressions per minute.

Q: What is the correct compression depth for adult CPR?
A: At least 2 inches (5 cm), not exceeding 2.4 inches (6 cm).

Q: What is the correct compression depth for an infant during CPR?
A: About 1.5 inches (4 cm).

Q: Where do you check a pulse in an unresponsive adult?
A: Carotid artery.

Q: Where do you check a pulse in an infant?
A: Brachial artery.

Q: What ratio is used for bag-valve-mask ventilations with an advanced airway in place during CPR?
A: One breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute), asynchronous with compressions.

Q: What is the first step in managing a conscious adult with a severe airway obstruction?
A: Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).

Q: How do you manage a conscious infant with a foreign body airway obstruction?
A: Alternate 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts.

Q: What is an AED used for?
A: Analyzing heart rhythm and delivering a shock to correct certain lethal arrhythmias (V-fib, pulseless V-tach).

Q: What should you do before delivering an AED shock?
A: Ensure no one is touching the patient ("clear!").

Q: What is the recommended flow rate for a nonrebreather mask?
A: 10–15 liters per minute (delivers up to ~90% oxygen).

Q: What is the recommended flow rate for a nasal cannula?
A: 1–6 liters per minute (delivers ~24–44% oxygen).

Q: What device is preferred for ventilating a non-breathing patient with a pulse?
A: Bag-valve-mask (BVM).

Q: What is the correct depth of chest compressions for a child (1 year to puberty)?
A: About 2 inches (5 cm).

Q: What is agonal breathing?
A: Ineffective, gasping respirations that are not adequate breathing and require ventilatory support.

Q: What is the "golden hour" concept in trauma care?
A: The idea that definitive care within the first hour after severe trauma improves survival outcomes.

Q: What is the Rule of Nines used for?
A: Estimating the percentage of total body surface area affected by burns in adults.

Q: According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of TBSA does each arm represent in an adult?
A: 9%.

Q: According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of TBSA does the anterior trunk represent in an adult?
A: 18%.

Q: According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of TBSA does each leg represent in an adult?
A: 18%.

Q: According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage does the head represent in an infant (modified rule)?
A: 18% (larger relative to body than in adults).

Q: What are the classifications of burn depth?
A: Superficial (1st degree), partial-thickness (2nd degree), full-thickness (3rd degree).

Q: What characterizes a superficial (first-degree) burn?
A: Red, painful skin without blistering, affecting only the epidermis.

Q: What characterizes a partial-thickness (second-degree) burn?
A: Blistering, red/mottled skin, moist, and very painful.

Q: What characterizes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?
A: Charred, white or leathery skin; may be painless due to nerve destruction.

Q: What is the initial treatment for a thermal burn?
A: Stop the burning process, remove smoldering clothing/jewelry, cover with a dry sterile dressing.

Q: What should you NOT apply to a burn in the field?
A: Ice, butter, ointments, or ice-cold water (risk of hypothermia and further tissue damage).

Q: What is the treatment for a chemical burn to the skin?
A: Brush off dry chemical first, then flush with copious water for at least 20 minutes.

Q: What is the priority when a patient has an impaled object?
A: Stabilize the object in place; do not remove it unless it obstructs the airway or interferes with CPR.

Q: How should an evisceration (protruding organs) be managed?
A: Cover with a moist, sterile dressing and an occlusive outer covering; do not push organs back in.

Q: What is the treatment for an open (sucking) chest wound?
A: Apply an occlusive/vented chest seal dressing to prevent air entry.

Q: What is a tension pneumothorax?
A: A life-threatening buildup of air in the pleural space causing lung collapse and shift of mediastinal structures.

Q: What are signs of a tension pneumothorax?
A: Severe respiratory distress, absent breath sounds on one side, tracheal deviation, jugular vein distension, hypotension.

Q: What is flail chest?
A: Two or more ribs fractured in two or more places, creating a free-floating segment that moves paradoxically.

Q: How should flail chest be managed in the field?
A: Support ventilations as needed; positive pressure ventilation can help stabilize the segment; high-flow oxygen.

Q: What is the first priority in managing severe external bleeding?
A: Direct pressure on the wound.

Q: When is a tourniquet indicated?
A: Severe, life-threatening extremity hemorrhage that cannot be controlled with direct pressure.

Q: Where should a tourniquet be placed?
A: 2–3 inches proximal to the wound, not over a joint.

Q: What are the classes of hemorrhagic shock based on blood loss?
A: Class I (<15%), Class II (15–30%), Class III (30–40%), Class IV (>40%).

Q: What are early signs of shock (compensated shock)?
A: Tachycardia, pale/cool/clammy skin, anxiety, delayed capillary refill.

Q: What are late signs of shock (decompensated shock)?
A: Hypotension, altered mental status, weak/absent peripheral pulses, cyanosis.

Q: What position should be used for a patient in shock without spinal or leg injury?
A: Supine, and may elevate legs if no contraindication.

Q: What is hypovolemic shock?
A: Shock caused by significant loss of blood volume or fluid.

Q: What is anaphylactic shock?
A: A severe, life-threatening allergic reaction causing widespread vasodilation and airway swelling.

Q: What are signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
A: Hives, swelling of face/throat, wheezing, difficulty breathing, hypotension, weak rapid pulse.

Q: What EMT-administered medication treats anaphylaxis?
A: Epinephrine via auto-injector (e.g., EpiPen).

Q: What is neurogenic shock?
A: Shock from spinal cord injury causing loss of vascular tone, resulting in warm skin and hypotension without tachycardia.

Q: What is cardiogenic shock?
A: Shock resulting from the heart's inability to pump effectively, often after MI.

Q: What is septic shock?
A: Shock caused by a severe systemic infection leading to vasodilation and organ dysfunction.

Q: What is the primary EMT-Basic treatment for all types of shock?
A: High-flow oxygen, keep patient warm, control bleeding, rapid transport.

Q: What is Cushing's Triad and what does it indicate?
A: Rising blood pressure, decreasing heart rate, irregular respirations — a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.

Q: What are signs of a basilar skull fracture?
A: Battle's sign (bruising behind ears), raccoon eyes (bruising around eyes), CSF leakage from ears/nose.

Q: What is the priority in spinal motion restriction?
A: Manually stabilize the head and neck in a neutral in-line position as soon as possible.

Q: What is a sign of possible spinal cord injury?
A: Numbness, tingling, paralysis, or loss of sensation/motor function below the injury site.

Q: What is the correct method for splinting a suspected fracture?
A: Immobilize the joint above and below the injury site before moving the patient.

Q: What should you check before and after splinting an extremity?
A: Distal pulse, motor function, and sensation (PMS).

Q: What is a sign of compartment syndrome?
A: Severe pain out of proportion to injury, tightness, pallor, paresthesia, and pulselessness (late sign) in the limb.

Q: What is crepitus?
A: A grating or crackling sensation/sound from broken bone ends rubbing together.

Q: What is the management for an amputated body part?
A: Wrap in sterile dressing, place in a plastic bag, and keep cool (on ice, not directly touching) — transport with the patient.

Q: What are the two types of medical patients EMTs must distinguish?
A: Trauma (injury) and medical (illness) patients, affecting assessment approach.

Q: What is the emergency treatment for a conscious diabetic patient with suspected hypoglycemia who can swallow?
A: Administer oral glucose.

Q: What are signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar)?
A: Rapid onset confusion, diaphoresis, pale/clammy skin, weakness, tachycardia, combative behavior.

Q: What are signs of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar/DKA)?
A: Gradual onset, warm/dry skin, fruity breath odor, deep rapid (Kussmaul) respirations, excessive thirst/urination.

Q: What is the standard oral glucose dose route for a diabetic emergency?
A: Between cheek and gum, only if the patient is conscious and can protect their airway.

Q: What is the FAST mnemonic used to recognize stroke?
A: Face drooping, Arm drift, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911/note time last known well.

Q: Why is "time last known well" critical in suspected stroke?
A: It determines eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like fibrinolytics at the hospital.

Q: What is a seizure classified as if it lasts longer than 5 minutes or recurs without regaining consciousness?
A: Status epilepticus — a medical emergency requiring rapid transport.

Q: What is the priority EMT treatment during an active seizure?
A: Protect the patient from injury; do not restrain or place anything in the mouth.

Q: What is postictal state?
A: The period of confusion, fatigue, or altered mental status following a seizure.

Q: What are common signs of a heart attack (myocardial infarction)?
A: Chest pain/pressure, pain radiating to arm/jaw/back, shortness of breath, diaphoresis, nausea.

Q: What EMT-Basic medication may be given for suspected cardiac chest pain (if not contraindicated)?
A: Aspirin (chewed, 162–324 mg) to reduce clot formation.

Q: What are contraindications to administering aspirin?
A: Known allergy, active GI bleeding, or recent use of blood thinners that increases bleeding risk (per protocol/medical direction).

Q: What is nitroglycerin used to treat and how is it administered?
A: Chest pain from angina/cardiac origin; administered sublingually, assisting the patient with their own prescribed medication.

Q: What is a major contraindication to assisting with nitroglycerin?
A: Hypotension (systolic BP below the protocol threshold, often <100 mmHg) or use of erectile dysfunction medications.

Q: What are signs of congestive heart failure (CHF)/pulmonary edema?
A: Shortness of breath, crackles/rales in lungs, pink frothy sputum, jugular vein distension, peripheral edema.

Q: What position is best for a conscious patient with CHF/pulmonary edema?
A: Upright/sitting position (high Fowler's) to ease breathing.

Q: What is the correct treatment approach for a patient having an asthma attack?
A: Assist with prescribed metered-dose inhaler if available and authorized, and administer oxygen.

Q: What are signs of a severe asthma attack?
A: Wheezing, use of accessory muscles, tripod positioning, tachypnea, inability to speak full sentences.

Q: What is COPD?
A: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease — includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema, causing long-term airflow limitation.

Q: What is the treatment goal for a hyperventilating patient with no underlying medical cause?
A: Coach slow breathing and reassure the patient; treat any underlying anxiety cause.

Q: What are signs of an acute abdomen?
A: Severe abdominal pain, rigidity, guarding, rebound tenderness, nausea/vomiting.

Q: What is the recommended position for a patient with abdominal pain?
A: Position of comfort, often with knees flexed.

Q: What is a common cause of altered mental status EMTs must always assess for?
A: Hypoglycemia — check blood glucose or treat empirically per protocol if trained.

Q: What does the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS help recall?
A: Causes of altered mental status: Alcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, Overdose, Uremia, Trauma, Infection, Psychiatric, Stroke/shock.

Q: What is the treatment priority for suspected opioid overdose?
A: Support airway/breathing and administer naloxone if within scope and available.

Q: What does naloxone (Narcan) do?
A: Reverses the effects of opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors.

Q: What is the primary EMT treatment for poisoning by ingestion?
A: Contact poison control/medical direction; do not induce vomiting unless instructed.

Q: What is activated charcoal used for and when is it contraindicated?
A: Absorbs certain ingested poisons; contraindicated if altered mental status, unable to swallow, or ingested acid/alkali/petroleum.

Q: What is the management for a patient exposed to carbon monoxide?
A: Remove from source, administer 100% high-flow oxygen, transport promptly.

Q: What is heat exhaustion?
A: Heat-related illness with heavy sweating, weakness, cool/clammy skin, and normal-to-slightly-elevated temperature.

Q: What is heat stroke?
A: A life-threatening heat emergency with hot/dry (or moist) skin, altered mental status, and very high body temperature.

Q: What is the immediate treatment for heat stroke?
A: Rapid cooling (remove clothing, cool water/ice packs to neck/groin/armpits), high-flow oxygen, rapid transport.

Q: What is the treatment for hypothermia in the field?
A: Remove wet clothing, passively rewarm, handle gently to avoid triggering cardiac arrhythmias.

Q: What is frostbite and how should it be managed?
A: Freezing of tissue; protect the area, do not rub or rewarm if refreezing is possible, avoid direct heat.

Q: What is the management for a near-drowning patient?
A: Ensure airway/breathing support, suspect spinal injury if diving mechanism, high-flow oxygen, rapid transport.

Q: What are signs of a venomous snakebite?
A: Puncture marks, localized pain/swelling, discoloration, possible systemic symptoms (nausea, weakness).

Q: What is the field treatment for a snakebite?
A: Keep the patient calm and still, immobilize the limb below heart level, remove constrictive items, transport promptly.

Q: What is the treatment for anaphylaxis from an insect sting with an available EpiPen?
A: Assist the patient with their prescribed epinephrine auto-injector.

Q: What is the treatment approach for a behavioral emergency patient who is a danger to self or others?
A: Ensure scene safety, use verbal de-escalation, consider law enforcement assistance and restraint only per protocol.

Q: What is a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate action?
A: Active suicidal or homicidal ideation with a plan and means.

Q: What are the stages of labor?
A: First stage (dilation of cervix), second stage (delivery of baby), third stage (delivery of placenta).

Q: What indicates imminent delivery?
A: Crowning (the baby's head visible at the vaginal opening), strong urge to push, contractions less than 2 minutes apart.

Q: What should the EMT do if the umbilical cord is wrapped around the newborn's neck (nuchal cord)?
A: Gently slip the cord over the baby's head; if too tight, clamp and cut it.

Q: How many clamps are used before cutting the umbilical cord, and where?
A: Two clamps, cutting between them, about 4 inches and 6 inches from the newborn's abdomen.

Q: What is the initial treatment priority for a newborn immediately after birth?
A: Dry, warm, position, suction if needed, and stimulate to breathe.

Q: What is the normal heart rate for a newborn that indicates adequate perfusion?
A: Above 100 beats per minute.

Q: What action should be taken if a newborn's heart rate is below 100 bpm after initial stimulation?
A: Begin positive pressure ventilation (assisted ventilations).

Q: What action should be taken if a newborn's heart rate is below 60 bpm despite ventilation?
A: Begin chest compressions along with ventilations (neonatal resuscitation).

Q: What is a prolapsed umbilical cord and how is it managed?
A: The cord presents before the baby; position mother hips elevated/knee-chest, insert gloved fingers to relieve pressure off the cord, do not push cord back in, rapid transport.

Q: What is a breech birth?
A: Delivery where the buttocks or feet present first instead of the head.

Q: What is preeclampsia and what are its signs?
A: Pregnancy-induced hypertension with signs including headache, visual disturbances, and swelling (edema).

Q: What is placental abruption?
A: Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing painful vaginal bleeding, often with dark blood.

Q: What is placenta previa?
A: The placenta implants over or near the cervix, causing painless bright red vaginal bleeding.

Q: What is the APGAR score used to assess?
A: A newborn's condition at 1 and 5 minutes after birth (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration).

Q: What are the anatomical differences that make pediatric airway management unique?
A: Larger tongue relative to mouth, smaller airway diameter, more anterior/superior larynx, floppy epiglottis.

Q: What is the leading cause of cardiac arrest in children?
A: Respiratory failure/arrest (unlike adults, where cardiac causes predominate).

Q: What is the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT)?
A: A rapid visual assessment tool evaluating appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin.

Q: What is a common sign of respiratory distress in infants?
A: Nasal flaring, grunting, retractions, and see-saw breathing.

Q: What position best opens the airway of an infant given their large occiput?
A: Slight padding under the shoulders to maintain a neutral, sniffing position.

Q: What is croup?
A: A viral infection causing upper airway swelling with a characteristic "seal bark" cough and stridor.

Q: What is epiglottitis?
A: A life-threatening bacterial infection causing severe swelling of the epiglottis, with drooling, tripod positioning, and stridor.

Q: What should EMTs avoid doing when epiglottitis is suspected?
A: Avoid examining the throat or agitating the child, as this may cause complete airway obstruction.

Q: What is the most common cause of pediatric trauma death?
A: Head injury.

Q: What is a key consideration when assessing vital signs in children compared to adults?
A: Normal ranges vary significantly by age; compare to age-appropriate norms rather than adult values.

Q: What is Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
A: The sudden, unexplained death of an infant under one year old, usually during sleep.

Q: What are red flags for suspected child abuse?
A: Injuries inconsistent with the stated mechanism, injuries in various healing stages, patterned bruising, delayed care-seeking.

Q: What is the EMT's legal obligation regarding suspected abuse or neglect?
A: Mandatory reporting to appropriate authorities per state law.

Q: What does the term "triage" mean in a mass casualty incident?
A: The process of sorting patients based on severity of injury to prioritize treatment and transport.

Q: What are the four color-coded categories in START triage?
A: Red (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Green (minor/walking wounded), Black (deceased/expectant).

Q: In START triage, what determines a "Red" (immediate) categorization?
A: Respirations >30/min, no radial pulse/capillary refill >2 sec, or inability to follow simple commands.

Q: What is the first step in the START triage algorithm?
A: Direct all walking wounded patients to a designated area (tagged Green).

Q: What does the incident command system (ICS) provide?
A: A standardized organizational structure for managing emergency incidents and multi-agency response.

Q: Who is responsible for overall management of an incident under ICS?
A: The Incident Commander.

Q: What is a Multiple-Casualty Incident (MCI)?
A: An incident with a number of patients that exceeds or challenges available resources.

Q: What is the correct use of Standard Precautions/BSI?
A: Treating all patients and body fluids as potentially infectious, using gloves, mask, eye protection as indicated.

Q: What PPE is recommended for a patient with suspected active tuberculosis?
A: N95 or HEPA respirator in addition to standard precautions.

Q: What does "implied consent" mean?
A: Consent assumed for an unresponsive or incapacitated patient who would reasonably want emergency treatment.

Q: What is "expressed consent"?
A: Consent verbally or otherwise given by a competent adult patient before treatment.

Q: What is required for a minor to receive emergency treatment without parental consent?
A: Implied consent applies in a true emergency, or specific state laws (e.g., emancipated minor) may allow expressed consent.

Q: What is "abandonment" in EMS?
A: Terminating care of a patient without ensuring an equal or higher level of care continues.

Q: What constitutes "negligence" in EMS practice?
A: Failure to provide the standard of care that a reasonably prudent EMT would provide, resulting in harm to the patient.

Q: What are the four elements required to prove negligence?
A: Duty to act, breach of duty, damages, and causation.

Q: What is "duty to act"?
A: A legal obligation to provide care based on employment, contract, or jurisdictional statute.

Q: What does "scope of practice" refer to?
A: The range of duties and skills an EMT is legally permitted and trained to perform.

Q: What is a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?
A: A legal document indicating a patient does not wish to receive resuscitative efforts in cardiac/respiratory arrest.

Q: What should an EMT do if presented with a valid DNR during cardiac arrest?
A: Withhold resuscitation efforts per local protocol and document appropriately.

Q: What is HIPAA and why does it matter to EMTs?
A: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient confidentiality and privacy of medical information.

Q: What is the correct action if a competent adult patient refuses treatment/transport?
A: Ensure the patient has capacity, inform of risks, document thoroughly, and have them sign a refusal form.

Q: What determines if a patient has "decision-making capacity"?
A: They are alert, oriented, and able to understand the risks/consequences of their decision.

Q: What is a "Good Samaritan Law" designed to protect?
A: Individuals who provide emergency care in good faith from liability, as long as care given is within scope and without gross negligence.

Q: What is required documentation after any patient contact?
A: A complete, accurate patient care report (PCR).

Q: Why is objective, factual documentation important in a PCR?
A: It serves as a legal record and protects the EMT; opinions/judgmental language should be avoided.

Q: What is the correct method to correct an error in a written PCR?
A: Draw a single line through the error, initial it, and write the correction (do not erase or obliterate).

Q: What does "due regard for the safety of others" mean when operating an emergency vehicle?
A: Legal standard requiring EMS drivers to operate safely, considering the well-being of the public, even with lights and sirens.

Q: When is it legally appropriate to use lights and sirens during patient transport?
A: Only when transporting a patient whose condition warrants expedited transport, per local protocol.

Q: What is the purpose of a safety data sheet (SDS) at a hazmat scene?
A: Provides information on hazards, handling, and emergency measures for hazardous substances.

Q: What is the primary EMS role at a hazardous materials incident?
A: Stage in a safe zone (cold zone) and provide care only after patients are decontaminated, unless trained/equipped for hot zone entry.

Q: What is the correct approach when arriving at a scene with downed power lines?
A: Stay clear, treat all lines as energized, and wait for utility company/fire department to secure the scene.

Q: What is the "cold zone" at a hazmat or rescue incident?
A: The safe area where support functions like triage and treatment occur, free from contamination hazards.

Q: What is the correct term for moving a patient in immediate danger without full spinal precautions?
A: Emergency move (e.g., in cases of fire, explosion risk, or inability to protect airway).

Q: What is the recommended technique to lift a patient safely and protect your back?
A: Keep your back straight, bend at the knees/hips, keep the load close to your body, use your legs to lift.

Q: What is the normal capillary refill time?
A: Less than 2 seconds in adults and children (less reliable in adults, more useful in pediatrics).

Q: What does pulse oximetry measure?
A: The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen (SpO2); normal is typically 95–100%.

Q: What is the correct site to assess skin color in patients with darker complexion?
A: Mucous membranes, nail beds, or palms/soles.

Q: What does cyanosis indicate?
A: Bluish discoloration of skin/mucous membranes indicating inadequate oxygenation.

Q: What does the term "mechanism of injury" (MOI) refer to?
A: The way in which a traumatic injury occurred, used to predict potential severity/type of injuries.

Q: What is a "significant mechanism of injury" example that warrants rapid trauma assessment?
A: Falls >20 feet (adult), high-speed vehicle collision, ejection from vehicle, penetrating trauma to torso/head.

Q: What is the correct method to determine level of priority for transport (load and go vs. stay and play)?
A: Based on presence of life threats found in the primary assessment, not solely on injury appearance.