Title: Pmp Exam Process Groups And Knowledge Areas — LearnCoachAssist

Q: Five PMI Process Groups?
A: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing.

Q: Ten knowledge areas?
A: Integration, Scope, Schedule, Cost, Quality, Resource, Communications, Risk, Procurement, Stakeholder.

Q: Project Charter — purpose?
A: Formally authorizes the project; appoints PM; created in Initiating. Without it, you're not officially a project.

Q: Difference between project, program, portfolio?
A: Project: temporary, unique product.
Program: related projects coordinated for shared benefits.
Portfolio: collection of projects + programs aligned to strategic objectives.

Q: Triple constraint?
A: Scope, Time, Cost — change one and at least one other moves. Quality often added as a 4th dimension.

Q: WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)?
A: Hierarchical decomposition of total project scope into deliverables. Lowest level = work packages.

Q: WBS dictionary?
A: Document describing each WBS element: code, scope, owner, milestones, cost, contract info.

Q: Difference: deliverable, work package, activity?
A: Deliverable → Work Package (managed unit, scheduled and costed) → Activity (atomic action listed in schedule).

Q: Critical Path Method (CPM)?
A: Longest path through schedule network; sets project duration. Activities on the critical path have zero total float.

Q: Float vs lead vs lag?
A: Float (slack): how long an activity can slip without delaying project.
Lead: overlap (start successor before predecessor finishes).
Lag: forced delay between activities.

Q: Crashing vs fast-tracking?
A: Crashing: add resources to shorten activity (more cost).
Fast-tracking: run activities in parallel that were planned sequential (more risk).

Q: Earned Value formulas — CV, SV?
A: CV = EV - AC (cost variance).
SV = EV - PV (schedule variance).

Q: Earned Value — CPI, SPI?
A: CPI = EV / AC (cost performance index; >1 = under budget).
SPI = EV / PV (schedule performance; >1 = ahead).

Q: EAC (Estimate at Completion) basic formula?
A: Most common: EAC = BAC / CPI — extrapolates current performance to completion.

Q: VAC?
A: VAC = BAC - EAC — Variance at Completion. Positive means you'll finish under budget.

Q: Difference: BAC, EAC, ETC?
A: BAC: original budget at completion.
EAC: forecast based on actual performance.
ETC: estimate to complete = EAC - AC.

Q: Risk register typical columns?
A: ID, Description, Probability, Impact, Score, Owner, Response, Status, Trigger.

Q: Four risk responses (negative)?
A: Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept.

Q: Four risk responses (positive)?
A: Exploit, Share, Enhance, Accept.

Q: Quantitative vs qualitative risk analysis?
A: Qualitative: prob × impact matrix, prioritize.
Quantitative: numerical models (Monte Carlo, EMV, decision trees).

Q: EMV (Expected Monetary Value)?
A: EMV = Σ (probability × impact). Used in decision trees.

Q: Stakeholder engagement levels?
A: Unaware → Resistant → Neutral → Supportive → Leading. Plan moves stakeholders toward desired level.

Q: Communication channels formula?
A: n(n-1)/2 for n stakeholders. 10 people → 45 channels.

Q: Conflict resolution preferred order?
A: Collaborate / Problem-solve > Compromise > Smoothing > Forcing > Withdrawing.

Q: Procurement contract types — risk distribution?
A: FFP (Fixed): seller bears risk.
T&M / Cost-plus: buyer bears risk.
CPIF/CPAF/CPFF: variants of cost-plus differing in fee structure.

Q: Lessons learned — when collected?
A: Throughout the project, formally documented during Closing. Should drive future improvements.

Q: Project Management Plan vs Project Documents?
A: Plan: the baselines (scope, schedule, cost) + subsidiary plans. Documents: artifacts produced during execution (logs, registers).

Q: Configuration vs Change Control?
A: Configuration: manage the product (versions, baseline).
Change Control: manage requested changes to baselines.

Q: CCB (Change Control Board)?
A: Group authorized to approve, reject, defer change requests. Defined in Project Management Plan.

Q: Agile vs predictive (waterfall) PM?
A: Predictive: detailed upfront plan, low change tolerance.
Agile: iterative, embraces change, short feedback loops.

Q: Scrum roles?
A: Product Owner, Scrum Master, Development Team.

Q: Scrum events?
A: Sprint, Sprint Planning, Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, Sprint Retrospective.

Q: Definition of Done?
A: Team-agreed criteria for considering work complete (passes tests, code reviewed, deployed to staging, etc.).

Q: Burn-down vs burn-up chart?
A: Burn-down: remaining work over time.
Burn-up: completed work + total scope — shows scope changes.

Q: Initiating Process Group — primary purpose?
A: Formally authorize the project (or a new phase) and define its initial scope; commits organizational resources and gives the PM authority to apply resources.

Q: Key outputs of the Initiating Process Group?
A: Project charter, preliminary scope statement (pre-2008 term) and stakeholder register; the sponsor signs the charter.

Q: What is a project sponsor?
A: The person accountable for the project's success, providing resources, funding, and political sponsorship; typically signs the project charter.

Q: What does the project charter NOT contain?
A: Detailed scope baseline, schedule baseline, or cost baseline — those are outputs of Planning, not Initiating.

Q: Identify Stakeholders — which process?
A: Identify Stakeholders is an Initiating process; it's done early because stakeholder analysis drives the communications plan.

Q: Planning Process Group — primary purpose?
A: Establish the total scope of effort, refine objectives, and define the course of action to achieve them; produces the Project Management Plan.

Q: Executing Process Group — primary purpose?
A: Complete the work defined in the Project Management Plan to satisfy project objectives; consumes the bulk of the project budget and resources.

Q: Monitoring & Controlling — primary purpose?
A: Track, review, and regulate progress and performance; identify areas where changes to the plan are required and initiate corresponding changes.

Q: Closing Process Group — primary purpose?
A: Formally terminate the project, phase, or contract; verify product acceptance, document lessons learned, and release resources.

Q: What is the difference between a process and a process group?
A: A process is a set of interrelated actions; a process group is a logical aggregation of processes that share similar functions (Initiating, Planning, Executing, M&C, Closing).

Q: How many total processes are in the PMBOK 6th edition?
A: 49 processes distributed across the 5 process groups and 10 knowledge areas.

Q: How do processes within a Process Group relate to each other?
A: Outputs of one process become inputs to another (and may flow to other groups); iterations are expected — Planning is rarely done once and never revisited.

Q: Which Process Group has the most processes?
A: Executing contains the largest number of processes (10 in PMBOK 6) because most of the project work and coordination happens there.

Q: What is the relationship between Process Groups and Knowledge Areas?
A: Each of the 49 processes is mapped to exactly one Process Group AND one Knowledge Area; the matrix view shows coverage (e.g., 7 Integration processes, 6 Risk processes).

Q: Is the Closing Process Group done only once?
A: Not always — phases, contracts, and early-terminated projects can each go through Closing multiple times.

Q: Integration Management — how many processes?
A: Seven: Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Mgmt Plan, Direct & Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge, Monitor & Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Change Control, Close Project or Phase.

Q: What is the "single" document that ties every baseline together?
A: The Project Management Plan — includes scope/schedule/cost baselines plus all subsidiary plans (risk, communications, etc.).

Q: Perform Integrated Change Control — what it really does?
A: Reviews every change request, approves/rejects/defers, and updates the baselines; it's the only path to change baselines once approved.

Q: What is a change request?
A: A formal proposal to modify any baseline, plan, or document; routed through Integrated Change Control; can be approved, rejected, or deferred.

Q: Three categories of change requests?
A: Defect repair (fix a flaw), Preventive action (avoid future problem), Corrective action (bring future performance back in line with plan).

Q: What is a corrective action vs preventive action?
A: Corrective: realign future performance with the plan.
Preventive: reduce probability of a future negative event.

Q: What does "Direct and Manage Project Work" produce?
A: Deliverables, work performance data, issue logs, change requests, and project management plan updates.

Q: Project Management Information System (PMIS) — purpose?
A: Tools/software used to manage project information — schedule tools, cost systems, databases; collecting, storing, and distributing outputs.

Q: Manage Project Knowledge — what's it for?
A: Leveraging existing organizational knowledge and creating new knowledge so lessons are not lost at project end; supports a learning culture.

Q: Close Project or Phase — required outputs?
A: Final product/service/result transition, lessons learned register updates, and final report; administrative closure confirms contracts and accounts are settled.

Q: Scope Management — how many processes?
A: Six: Plan Scope Mgmt, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Validate Scope, Control Scope.

Q: Product Scope vs Project Scope?
A: Product scope = features of the product/service.
Project scope = work needed to deliver the product scope. Both are in the scope baseline.

Q: Requirements vs requirements traceability matrix?
A: Requirements = conditions/features to meet.
RTM = table linking each requirement to its WBS element, tests, and design — ensures full coverage.

Q: Validate Scope vs Control Scope?
A: Validate Scope = formal acceptance of completed deliverables with sponsor/customer (Inspections, walkthroughs).
Control Scope = monitor scope/performance and manage scope creep.

Q: What is scope creep?
A: Uncontrolled expansion of project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources; commonly caused by poorly managed change control.

Q: Scope baseline components?
A: WBS + WBS dictionary + project scope statement = Scope Baseline (approved, used for performance measurement).

Q: 100% Rule in WBS?
A: Every piece of work required to produce the deliverables must be represented in the WBS — and the WBS must not contain work outside the project scope.

Q: What is a control account?
A: A WBS element placed at a management point where scope, schedule, and cost are integrated and tracked; used in Earned Value Management.

Q: What is a work package?
A: The lowest WBS level that can be scheduled, cost-estimated, and monitored; decomposed further into activities.

Q: How are activities different from work packages?
A: Work packages are deliverables at the WBS lowest level; activities are the actions inside the schedule that produce those deliverables.

Q: Schedule Management — how many processes?
A: Six: Plan Schedule Mgmt, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Control Schedule.

Q: Three types of activity dependencies?
A: Mandatory (hard logic) — physical limits.
Discretionary (soft logic) — chosen by team.
External — outside the project's control.

Q: PDM vs ADM vs CCBM?
A: PDM (Precedence Diagramming) = nodes+arrows, FS/FF/SS/SF.
ADM (Arrow) = arrows=activities.
CCBM (Conditional/branching) = conditional paths in iterative contexts.

Q: Four precedence relationships?
A: FS (Finish-to-Start), FF (Finish-to-Finish), SS (Start-to-Start), SF (Start-to-Finish; rarely used).

Q: What is a milestone?
A: A significant point/event in the schedule with zero duration; commonly used to mark phase gates, reviews, or major deliverables.

Q: What is a hammock activity?
A: A summary activity that spans several underlying activities; used to roll up reporting without changing the network logic.

Q: What is free float vs total float?
A: Free float = how much an activity can slip without delaying any successor's early start.
Total float = how much it can slip without delaying the project finish date.

Q: What is a near-critical path?
A: A path with total float close to zero; needs close monitoring because small slips push it onto the critical path.

Q: Resource optimization techniques?
A: Resource leveling — adjust start/finish dates to balance demand (may extend schedule).
Resource smoothing — adjust within float only, doesn't change end date.

Q: What-if scenario analysis in scheduling?
A: Models "what if" questions (e.g., delay of a key resource) to assess schedule impact; used in Develop Schedule.

Q: Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM)?
A: Adds buffers (project, feeding, resource) and protects the critical chain from student-syndrome/Parkinson's; focuses on resource constraints not just time.

Q: Cost Management — how many processes?
A: Four: Plan Cost Mgmt, Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, Control Costs.

Q: Three types of cost estimates?
A: Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM): −50% to +100%, very early.
Budget estimate: −10% to +25%.
Definitive estimate: −5% to +10%.

Q: Parametric vs analogous estimating?
A: Parametric: uses statistical relationship (e.g., $/unit × units).
Analogous (top-down): uses historical data from similar past projects.

Q: Bottom-up estimating?
A: Estimates each work package/activity and rolls them up; most accurate but most time-consuming and expensive.

Q: Three-point estimating formula?
A: PERT / beta distribution: TE = (O + 4M + P) / 6 where O=optimistic, M=most likely, P=pessimistic.

Q: Standard deviation of three-point estimate?
A: σ = (P - O) / 6; the range P−O spans ~6 standard deviations.

Q: Cost aggregation vs cost baseline?
A: Cost aggregation = summing costs by WBS/activity.
The cost baseline = approved, time-phased, project budget used to measure performance.

Q: Cost management plan — typical content?
A: Units of measure, precision, control thresholds, rules for measuring performance, reporting formats, process descriptions.

Q: What is "control account plan"?
A: The budget for a control account; includes planned value (PV) of all work authorized for that account.

Q: What is a funding limit reconciliation?
A: Reconciling planned expenditures against funding limits (e.g., fiscal-year disbursements); done in Determine Budget.

Q: Quality Management — how many processes?
A: Three: Plan Quality Mgmt, Manage Quality, Control Quality.

Q: Quality planning vs quality assurance vs quality control?
A: Plan: identify quality requirements & standards.
Manage Quality (QA): audit processes to ensure they will produce conforming outputs (process focus).
Control (QC): monitor and record results of quality activities (product focus).

Q: Seven basic quality tools?
A: Cause-and-effect (Ishikawa/Fishbone), flowchart, check sheet, Pareto, histogram, control chart, scatter diagram.

Q: Pareto principle applied to quality?
A: The 80/20 rule — ~80% of problems come from ~20% of causes; helps prioritize which issues to address first.

Q: Control chart — what does it show?
A: Plotted values with UCL/LCL (upper/control limits) derived from process mean ± 3σ; points outside limits signal special-cause variation.

Q: What is "prevention" vs "inspection" in quality?
A: Prevention: keep defects out of the process (cheaper in the long run).
Inspection: keep defects out of the customer's hands (catching them late).

Q: Cost of quality (COQ) categories?
A: Prevention, Appraisal, Internal failure, External failure — all four are trade-off costs of meeting quality.

Q: What is Six Sigma?
A: A data-driven methodology targeting 3.4 defects per million opportunities (DPMO); uses DMAIC: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control.

Q: What is a fishbone diagram used for?
A: Identifies the potential root causes of a problem by categorizing them (machine, method, material, measurement, man-power, environment).

Q: Resource Management — how many processes?
A: Six: Plan Resource Mgmt, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team, Control Resources.

Q: RACI chart — what is it?
A: Responsibility assignment matrix: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed; one A per task, many R/C/I allowed.

Q: Resource breakdown structure (RBS)?
A: Hierarchical representation of project resources by category and type; helps with resource planning and reporting.

Q: What is a physical vs human resource?
A: Physical = equipment, materials, facilities.
Human = people with skills & capabilities.

Q: Acquisition vs Develop vs Manage Team — differences?
A: Acquire = obtain resources needed.
Develop = improve competencies & interactions.
Manage = track performance, give feedback, handle changes.

Q: Conflict resolution techniques in order of preference?
A: PMI order: Confront/Collaborate → Compromise → Smooth → Force → Avoid/Withdraw.

Q: What is ground rules in team development?
A: Documented, agreed-upon norms of conduct for the team; created in early Develop Team; reduces ambiguity and conflict.

Q: What is a team charter?
A: Team-developed agreement covering mission, values, expectations, communication, decision rules, and conflict resolution.

Q: What is "Tuckman's model" of team development?
A: Forming → Storming → Norming → Performing → Adjourning — a classic framework for predicting team behavior.

Q: Power/interest grid for stakeholders?
A: Plots stakeholders by power (high/low) and interest (high/low) to determine engagement strategy — high-power/high-interest = manage closely.

Q: Communications Management — how many processes?
A: Three: Plan Communications Mgmt, Manage Communications, Monitor Communications.

Q: What is "push" vs "pull" communication?
A: Push: sender transmits to specific recipients (emails, memos).Pull: recipients access info on demand (intranet, knowledge bases).

Q: What is "interactive" communication?
A: Two-way or multi-way exchange — meetings, calls, video conferences; highest information richness.

Q: What is "formal" vs "informal" written communication?
A: Formal = contracts, plans, reports.
Informal = emails, chat, quick memos; not in formal records.

Q: Why does communication complexity explode with team size?
A: Channels grow as n(n−1)/2; adding even one person increases many channels at once.

Q: What is "Manage Communications" output?
A: Project communications, project management plan updates, and project documents updates (including lessons learned and issue logs).

Q: Noise in communication?
A: Anything that interferes with message transmission/understanding — language, distance, culture, distractions; model: Sender → Encode → Message → Decode → Receiver, with noise.

Q: Risk Management — how many processes?
A: Six: Plan Risk Mgmt, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement/Monitor/Control Risks.

Q: Individual vs overall risk?
A: Individual project risks = uncertain events affecting objectives (positive or negative).Overall project risk = effect of uncertainty on the project as a whole.

Q: Risk threshold vs risk appetite?
A: Organization's risk appetite = amount of uncertainty it is willing to accept.Risk threshold = specific metric around that appetite that triggers escalation.

Q: Risk breakdown structure (RBS)?
A: Hierarchical decomposition of identified risks by category (technical, external, organizational, PM-related); helps Identify Risks.

Q: Probability and Impact Matrix?
A: Used in qualitative analysis to score each risk P×I and prioritize; typically uses Low/Medium/High or numeric 1–5 scales.

Q: Why do quantitative risk analysis?
A: Numerically analyze effect of identified individual risks AND overall project risk on objectives; uses Monte Carlo, decision trees, EMV.

Q: Monte Carlo simulation in risk?
A: Run the schedule/cost model many times sampling risk distributions; produces a probability distribution of finish dates/costs.

Q: What is "residual" risk?
A: Risk remaining after responses have been applied; in many cases some risk is accepted (residual).

Q: What is a "secondary" risk?
A: A new risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response — must be identified and managed too.

Q: Contingency vs management reserves?
A: Contingency reserves: for known (identified) risks — part of the cost baseline.
Management reserves: for unknown-unknowns — NOT in the cost baseline.

Q: Risk audit?
A: Examines and documents the effectiveness of risk responses; part of Monitor Risks; checks that responses are actually reducing risk.

Q: Workaround in risk management?
A: Unplanned response taken to handle an emerging risk not previously identified; reactive, not proactive.

Q: Procurement Management — how many processes?
A: Three: Plan Procurement Mgmt, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements.

Q: Make-or-buy analysis?
A: Decision tool to determine whether work should be performed in-house or purchased; considers cost, capability, control, risk.

Q: FFP vs FP vs FPIF?
A: FFP (Firm Fixed Price): price stays the same.
FP (Fixed Price) with economic price adjustment: adjusts for inflation/forex.
FPIF: price ceiling with share-ratio for over/under runs.

Q: T&M contract best for?
A: When scope is not well-defined and can't easily use FFP or cost-plus; hybrid of FFP and CP — risks shared, especially on materials.

Q: Cost-reimbursable contract types?
A: CPFF (Cost Plus Fixed Fee), CPIF (Cost Plus Incentive Fee), CPAF (Cost Plus Award Fee); buyer reimburses + pays fee.

Q: CPPO — when is it used?
A: Contractor Payment for Performance Outcomes — used on outcome-based service contracts (not PMBOK core, but emerging).

Q: What is a procurement statement of work (SOW)?
A: Describes procurement item in detail — what is to be procured, quantity, quality, performance, period of place.

Q: Single source vs sole source?
A: Single source = chose specifically even though competitors exist (preferred vendor).
Sole source = only one supplier can provide (no alternative exists).

Q: Bidder conference purpose?
A: Ensure all prospective sellers hear the same information and have equal opportunity to ask questions; documents are issued afterward.

Q: Most important output of Conduct Procurements?
A: Agreements (contracts) signed with selected sellers; includes awarded proposals, agreements, and procurement statement of work.

Q: What is "administrative closure" in procurement?
A: Confirming work was completed satisfactorily, payments processed, records archived; supports the contract closure.

Q: Stakeholder Management — how many processes?
A: Three: Identify Stakeholders, Plan Stakeholder Engagement, Manage Stakeholder Engagement, Monitor Stakeholder Engagement (4 processes in PMBOK 6).

Q: Analytical techniques in Identify Stakeholders?
A: Stakeholder analysis (interest, power, influence, impact) plus expert judgment; produces the stakeholder register & assessment matrix.

Q: Unaware vs Neutral stakeholder?
A: Unaware: doesn't know project exists.
Neutral: knows but doesn't care or hasn't decided.

Q: How are engagement levels changed?
A: Through communication and Manage Stakeholder Engagement — moving them from current to desired level; tracked in engagement assessment matrix.

Q: What is a stakeholder management plan?
A: Subsidiary plan describing how stakeholder engagement will be executed; includes engagement levels, communication requirements, and strategies.

Q: Escalation path for stakeholder issues?
A: Defined rules in the stakeholder plan for when to push issues upward (e.g., to functional manager, PMO, sponsor) and how quickly.

Q: Performing Integration during phase transitions?
A: At each phase end, the PM reviews current status with the sponsor and decides to continue, replan, or close — done through Close Project or Phase.

Q: What is a "Phase Gate" or "Stage Gate"?
A: Review at end of a phase where the project is evaluated before receiving authorization to start the next phase.

Q: Why is integration the "master" knowledge area?
A: Because all other knowledge areas' processes are coordinated through integration processes — there's a single Plan-Do-Check-Act for the whole project.

Q: What is a benefits management plan?
A: Defines how and when benefits of the project will be delivered and measured; often owned by the program/portfolio manager post-delivery.

Q: Planned Value (PV) at a point in time?
A: Authorized budget for work scheduled to be completed by that point in time — the "should-have-earned" baseline curve.

Q: Earned Value (EV) meaning?
A: Value of work actually completed expressed in the budget for that work — what was "physically" earned so far.

Q: Actual Cost (AC)?
A: Realized cost incurred for the work performed during a given time period — total spent.

Q: To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)?
A: TCPI = (BAC − EV) / (BAC − AC) — efficiency needed to finish on budget; common exam question.

Q: What if CPI = 1.0?
A: You are on budget; earned value equals actual cost so far. >1 = under budget, <1 = over budget.